do you really think the results would be any different if you broke down the film of those 1,000 games to see how many of them should have been called?
The way the article reads, it basically says that white refs, when only relying on the sub-concious because they don't have time to think about who they are calling the foul on, will tend to call more fouls on black players. Is that true? I don't know. What I want to know, to give this article any validity, is if the correct calls were made. If they were, then how can you draw any possible "race influence" conclusions from that.
White ref "A" calls a foul on Black player "B". Is it the right call? If it is, then how can you say it is a black/white thing.
I just think they are taking half the required data and trying to make an awfully broad conclusion from it. The fact that they used 1000 games means nothing to me, because they only used half of the significant factors from those 1,000 games.